What exactly is the moral sense of this? |
Braithwaite's suggestions are brilliant. By focusing on the moral sense of Christian language, he thinks he can solve the empirical puzzle and leave Christian practice more or less intact. It is true, that is, that Christian theologians have thought both that Scripture and the Rule of faith tell a story with intense moral implications. And it is also true, or was in Braithwaite's place and time, that most people tend to have a moral compass that is oriented in pretty much the same way.
But can we really ground moral language itself—let alone coded moral language—in the way Braithwaite thinks we can? For one thing, if we evaluate the statement "x is right" as a cipher for "I intend x," and the latter statement is indexed to a moral system in which "x" is held to be right, have we really broken free of the Verificationist trap? It seems that the move merely circles back to a claim that is either morally significant because it claims some truth about right and wrong behavior or we have let it borrow its significance from an intention that itself borrows meaning from a system of right behavior. I do not see how we can avoid either a claim to some kind of truth or an infinite regress. And if this is true of moral language, it seems just as true of his mirroring move with respect to religious claims. If religious language, such as "I believe in one Lord, Jesus Christ, the only begotten Son of God" is really a code for "I intend to live my life agapeistically," and if that latter statement only finds its specifically Christian character with reference to the Christian story, it seems we are not yet free of deciding whether the statement "I believe in one Lord Jesus Christ..." has its own meaning. I suspect that clever Verificationists would view this entire program as so much handwaving, demonstrating even more clearly that we can arrive at a basically moral society without reference to all of these complicated religious systems.
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